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Executive Summary
On 8 October 2026, the FCA published CP26/35, which would require every non-UCITS retail scheme (NURS) with at least 50% of its scheme property in inherently illiquid assets to deal for redemptions no more than once a month and on at least 90 days' notice, whatever its present terms, with two years for existing funds to comply; the FCA counts 17 funds with £7.22bn of net assets, and the consultation closes on 11 December 2026. CP26/34, published on 2 October, adds guidance and transitional provisions for the transaction reporting rules that take effect on 3 April 2028 and closes on 6 November. Market Watch 86 of 14 October reports material weaknesses in market abuse surveillance at all seven retail brokers the FCA visited, and the FCA's feedback of 15 October to 81 CFD firms records that only 12% changed any charge after its November 2025 review.
The PRA proposed in CP13/26 of 7 October to index 128 regulatory thresholds to nominal GDP from 1 July 2031 and, with the FCA, removed the firm-level 15% cap on high loan to income lending from 28 October in PS19/26. The Bank of England consulted on 15 October on letting central counterparties accept uncollateralised letters of credit. In enforcement, the Odey Final Notice of 30 September gave effect to the Upper Tribunal's penalty of £1,529,374, two individuals were prohibited following criminal convictions, and the former director and operations manager of the Nexus advice firms pleaded guilty to defrauding four clients of £2m. Four VCT offers opened for up to £160m including over-allotment facilities. Speeches by Jon Relleen and Sasha Mills each promise a joint FCA and Bank tokenisation roadmap before the end of the year, and Nathanaël Benjamin said that gilt repo policy proposals will follow in early 2027.
FCA proposes monthly dealing and 90 days' notice for every NURS holding 50% or more in illiquid assets, with two years to comply
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Asset Management, Wealth Management, Retail Distribution
On 8 October 2026, the FCA published CP26/35, Fair redemption terms for authorised funds investing in illiquid assets, proposing that the authorised fund manager (AFM) of any non-UCITS retail scheme (NURS) with at least 50% of its scheme property in inherently illiquid assets must offer redemptions no more than once a month and on at least 90 days' notice. The paper is a consultation with a draft instrument in Appendix 1; it closes on 11 December 2026 and no rules have been made. The FCA estimates that 17 funds, including feeders, with aggregate net assets of about £7.22bn at December 2025 would be caught, of which retail investors hold £3.07bn, and that three of them, with £0.87bn, already deal on the proposed terms.
Background. The proposals revive CP20/15 of August 2020, which would have imposed notice periods of 90 to 180 days on NURS property funds and which the FCA paused because distributors said their systems could not process notice periods and because IOSCO and the FSB were revising their liquidity recommendations. The new paper covers every inherently illiquid asset, and the FCA explains that the affected funds fall within IOSCO's Category 3, for which the revised recommendations contemplate long notice or settlement periods. It follows PS26/17 of August 2026 on anti-dilution and liquidity management for UCITS schemes and NURS, which we covered in Issue 26, and runs alongside CP26/28 on liquidity rules for unauthorised AIFs, which closes on 22 October.
What the rules require. The operative provision is a new rule, COLL 6.2.19AR, applied through COLL 6.2.19R(6). The AFM of a fund investing in inherently illiquid assets (FIIA) must not have a dealing day for redemptions more often than once a month; the notice period must begin at least 90 days before the dealing day to which the request relates; the AFM must confirm to the unitholder the expected dealing and payment dates when it accepts a request; and any deferral or limit must not produce more than one redemption day a month. The price must be determined within 182 days under COLL 6.2.16R(7) and the proceeds paid within 185, and subscriptions may continue at whatever frequency the AFM chooses. The FCA acknowledges that 90 days “will not be enough to sell some of the more illiquid assets” and states that it would not expect to authorise a fund investing substantially in assets that take longer than 90 days to sell on a 90-day notice period; new guidance at COLL 6.2.20G(2) directs the AFM to the reasonable expectations of the target investors and to the consistency requirement in FUND 3.6.2R.
Scope. The FCA proposes to amend the Glossary definition of a FIIA so that a fund's existing redemption terms are irrelevant. A NURS would be a FIIA if its objectives aim at 50% in inherently illiquid assets, or if it has held that proportion for three continuous months in the last twelve, whether or not it already deals monthly. The present definition excludes a fund whose limited redemption arrangements reflect the time needed to sell its assets, so some monthly-dealt property funds would enter the regime for the first time and become subject to the contingency plan and depositary oversight rules in COLL 6.6.3CR and COLL 6.6.4BR. The definition of an inherently illiquid asset is also redrawn: a directly held transferable security is illiquid if it would not be an approved security under COLL 5.6.5R(1), which ties the test to the 20% unapproved securities bucket; a unit in an LTAF is always illiquid; units in a QIS or an unregulated scheme are illiquid by reference to the second scheme's portfolio alone, without regard to its dealing terms, which brings feeder and fund-of-funds structures into the count; and a unit in a recognised scheme is added. The three-month buffer is retained for hybrid funds that drift above 50%, and the FCA states that it will scrutinise the dealing terms of any NURS with material illiquid exposure at the Fund Authorisations gateway whether or not it crosses the threshold; limited redemption arrangements, which COLL 6.2.19R(1) confines to FAIFs, property funds and specified-return funds, would become available to any NURS.
What changed from 2020. Four points moved in response to the 2020 feedback. The proposed category of funds predominantly investing in property is abandoned in favour of amending the FIIA regime. New and existing funds are treated alike, with a two-year implementation period for existing funds in place of a carve-out. Redemption requests are no longer irrevocable: a new COLL 6.2.16R(3B) would allow the AFM to agree a revocation where it is satisfied that other unitholders would not be prejudiced, and the same test is extended to LTAFs through COLL 15.8.12R(2)(e). The FCA has, however, kept its 2020 position that an AFM must accept redemption requests during a suspension and that the suspension period counts towards the notice period (proposed COLL 7.2.1-AR), despite respondents' objection that neither AFMs nor platforms are set up for it, and it would delete COLL 7.2.2G(1B), the guidance that sets a lower bar for suspending a FIIA.
Timing. Existing FIIAs would have two years from the making of the rules to change their dealing terms and must give unitholders at least one year's notice; the change is to be treated as a significant change under COLL 4.3.6R and not a fundamental change under COLL 4.3.4R, so no unitholder meeting is required. Funds brought into the FIIA regime by the new definition must comply with the existing FIIA rules after one year, and new funds would have six months. Existing FIIA units held in SIPPs would be treated as standard assets for three years pending a separate consultation on SIPP capital. The FCA has not fixed a date for final rules and states that it will take ISA eligibility into account “when deciding if and when to make final rules”: a NURS with a notice period qualifies for the Innovative Finance ISA, and the FCA's cost benefit analysis assumes, but cannot determine, continued Stocks and Shares ISA eligibility, which is a matter for HM Treasury.
Points of interpretation. The FCA rejected a deferral-only model, a 75% threshold, converting FIIAs into LTAFs and a waiver power for exceptional circumstances, giving its reasons in chapter 3. For funds below the threshold, the paper states that the FCA would “in many cases” expect an AFM with material illiquid exposure to operate limited redemption arrangements under the existing consistency rule, so 50% is not a safe harbour. The cost benefit analysis is finely balanced on the FCA's own figures: a ten-year net present value between a cost of £9.37m and a benefit of £12.05m, with a central estimate of £1.95m, because investor costs of £16.95m to £37.84m from lost flexibility are set against £43.88m of returns from lower cash holdings. The FCA relies on unquantified benefits, mainly fewer liquidity-driven suspensions, to conclude that the proposals are net beneficial.
Next steps. Responses are due by 11 December 2026. The second AIFM consultation is to deal with QIS dealing terms and with the 28-day solvency statement on winding up, which monthly-dealt funds may find difficult.
In my view, the removal of the carve-out in the FIIA definition matters more than the 90-day period, because it turns a question about dealing terms into a question about portfolio composition that an AFM must be able to answer at every valuation point. An AFM of a hybrid fund near the threshold should already be able to produce a dated calculation of the proportion of scheme property in inherently illiquid assets under the proposed definition, with units in second schemes counted on their portfolios and not their dealing terms, since that calculation would decide which rules apply from the day the instrument is made.
The FCA would turn a question about dealing terms into a question about portfolio composition that an AFM must answer at every valuation point.Asad Bukhory
Regulatory Updates
FCA consults on guidance and transitional provisions for the 2028 transaction reporting regime, with the final User Pack due by 3 April 2027
LOW RISK · Sectors: Investment Firms, Wholesale Markets, Asset Management
On 2 October 2026, the FCA published CP26/34, Preparing for the new transaction reporting regime, together with a draft reporting schema and validation rules for the Market Data Processor. The consultation is concerned with implementation: it proposes guidance, transitional provisions and consequential amendments for the rules made in PS26/15 (FCA 2026/52), which move transaction reporting from UK MiFIR into MAR 13, 14 and 15 on 3 April 2028, and it does not revisit the policy, which we analysed in Issue 26.
The guidance covers seven areas in which the FCA considers early clarification most useful, with the examples in Appendix 2:
- Client indicator. Guidance on MAR 14 fields 8 and 17, which replace the country-of-branch fields in RTS 22.
- Conditional single-sided reporting. Under the optional model, the buyer or seller reported by the receiving firm depends on the sending firm's trading capacity.
- Meaning of a transaction. Derivative events are treated as changes in economic exposure, in support of MAR 14.3.1G(7).
- Branch execution. The FCA restates the Market Watch 70 position that a UK branch is identified by supervisory, governance and operational arrangements and not by the trader's location.
- Equity swaps. Field 31 is populated with the reference price of the underlying instrument, following the removal of the SwpIn and SwpOut tags.
- Strike price. A new value, “NOAP”, is reported in field 48 where the strike cannot be determined at execution.
- Package transactions. These replace complex trades and require neither a single price nor simultaneous execution.
The examples are proposed as the first content of a new Transaction Reporting User Pack, on which the FCA will consult in full in the first quarter of 2027, which it will publish by 3 April 2027, and which will replace the ESMA guidelines, Q&A and TOTV opinion from 3 April 2028. The transitional provisions, in a proposed MAR TP 5, address the switch-over weekend. A transaction executed between 00:00 UTC on 31 March 2028 and 23:59 UTC on 2 April 2028 may be reported in the UK MiFIR format before 3 April or in the MAR 14 format afterwards, and either will be treated as compliant. Records of orders and transactions from before 3 April 2028 need not be reformatted to MAR 13. Corrections submitted after that date must follow the new rules, although the FCA does not expect them to contain information that UK MiFIR did not require when the transaction was executed. The FCA is also considering removing instruments tradeable only on EU venues from FCA FIRDS before April 2028, which depends on HM Treasury amending the legislation that sets the scope of the regime. Comments are due by 6 November 2026, and firms are invited to identify reporting scenarios that the existing Level 3 materials do not cover, for inclusion in the 2027 consultation.
Market Watch 86 reports material weaknesses in insider dealing surveillance at all seven retail brokers the FCA visited
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Wholesale Markets, Investment Firms, Retail Distribution
On 14 October 2026, the FCA published Market Watch 86, reporting on supervisory visits to seven UK retail brokerage firms to assess their arrangements for detecting and reporting market abuse. Market Watch is a newsletter: it records the FCA's observations and makes no new rules, and the obligation it describes is the requirement under UK MAR to maintain effective arrangements to detect and report suspicious orders and transactions. The FCA records that it found material weaknesses in the design, implementation and operation of surveillance at the firms visited, that it required every firm to take remedial action, and that in some cases it used skilled person reviews to obtain assurance over remediation.
The findings concern the reporting threshold, calibration and governance. On the threshold for a suspicious transaction and order report (STOR), several firms applied a standard of reasonable suspicion that the FCA considers too high: some procedures told analysts not to escalate unless they could show a link between the client and the issuer, even where other aggravating factors were present, and others steered analysts towards reasons to close an alert. On calibration, some firms used a single price-move threshold across all stocks without regard to volatility, or a minimum notional that excluded a significant proportion of client trading from monitoring; several relied on vendor default settings and could not explain their alert logic, and calibration testing was often limited to comparing alert volumes with trading volumes, whereas the FCA identifies as good practice testing above and below the line and using synthetic trade data to confirm that alerts fire in defined abuse scenarios. On governance, some senior managers responsible for surveillance had limited understanding of triage, investigation, escalation and calibration, responsibilities were split across functions without one individual responsible for the whole process, and quality assurance ranged from full review to none.
The FCA also records a conceptual error in some firms' market abuse risk assessments, the assumption that an alert in place is evidence of an effective control. Market abuse risk at retail brokers remains a supervisory priority, the FCA states, and the findings may be relevant to other types of firm.
My reading of the newsletter is that the finding on written procedures is the one with consequences beyond retail brokers, since a procedure that requires a client-issuer link before escalation sets a standard above the one in UK MAR and would be read against the firm in any later enforcement. A firm can test its own position by taking the last twelve months of closed alerts and asking how many were closed on a single mitigating factor, and whether anyone outside the surveillance team reviewed those decisions.
FCA review of benchmark administrators' governance finds records that did not capture challenge, rationale or actions
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Wholesale Markets
On 12 October 2026, the FCA published the findings of a multi-firm review of governance in the benchmarks sector, the final part of the supervisory work that followed its 2024 benchmarks portfolio letter. The document is a review and not guidance: the FCA describes its observations as “not a checklist or template”, does not expect administrators to adopt a single governance model, and does not state how many firms were in the sample. The review assessed board composition, challenge and decisions, delegation and escalation, board packs, and governance assurance.
The observations with the clearest application are those on records and on groups. The FCA found that in some cases governance records did not capture board decisions, the challenge made, the rationale or the resulting actions; it considers concise records of the principal considerations, challenge, rationale, actions and ownership sufficient, and notes that decisions taken outside scheduled meetings should be brought into the formal record where later oversight depends on them. On group structures, within which many administrators sit, arrangements worked best where the UK regulated entity retained visibility of its own risks and obligations and where information and escalation flowed in both directions between local and group forums; in some cases those flows were “less developed”. Conflicts arrangements were most meaningful, the FCA observes, where they reflected the firm's actual structure and not a generic register.
On management information, the review suggests testing reports by whether they helped the board identify a change, challenge an assumption, make a decision or track an outcome, and on assurance it suggests examining whether challenge affected decisions and whether escalation worked. The FCA will use the observations in its supervisory engagement and encourages administrators to engage with the Government's review of the UK Benchmarks Regulation, for which no timetable is given.
FCA tells CFD firms that only 12% changed any charge after its November 2025 review and that overnight funding mark-ups remain opaque
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Investment Firms, Retail Distribution
On 15 October 2026, the FCA published good and poor practice for contracts for difference (CFD) firms on the Consumer Duty price and value outcome, drawn from a May 2026 survey of 81 firms on what they had changed since its November 2025 multi-firm review. The document is supervisory feedback and not a rule, and it applies to every FCA-authorised firm that manufactures, promotes or distributes CFDs, spread bets or rolling spot forex to retail clients. It concerns firms with a live UK retail business, a different population from the 25 September closures covered in Issue 29.
Most firms had made or planned changes, but the FCA found many of them “relatively minor” and without effect on the provision of price and value. The changes it records as good practice are the widening of fair value assessments to every cost and charge on a client account, a move from offshore peer groups to UK-regulated peers, income thresholds at the appropriateness stage, and web pages that explain each fee. Only 12% of firms said they had changed any charge; those that did introduced interest on cash balances, reduced overnight financing on matched positions or outlier products, or changed calculation methods to reflect that financing is charged on total notional while no interest is paid on initial margin. Only a minority added an annual percentage rate to the implied daily cost of overnight financing, and the FCA states that the mark-ups in those charges remain “largely opaque”.
On matched or hedged positions, most respondents apply the full overnight funding spread to a client holding offsetting long and short CFDs on the same asset, many describing it as an administration charge, and the FCA is concerned that firms which offer reduced or waived margin on such positions may be encouraging clients to keep both legs open and pay spread and funding on each; it asks those firms to review every communication a client receives from onboarding onwards and to give a balanced account of the alternative of closing the positions. The FCA says it is disappointed that firms have not acted faster nearly three years after the Duty took effect and six months after its feedback, that fair value assessments should not be designed to conclude that value is fair, and that it expects firms to be able to show that they have reviewed their charges; it will follow up individually where it has concerns.
Bank of England & PRA
PRA proposes to index 128 regulatory thresholds to nominal GDP every five years from 1 July 2031
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Banking, Insurance, Investment Firms
On 7 October 2026, the PRA published CP13/26, The Prudential Regulation Authority's automatic thresholds indexation framework, proposing that 128 fixed nominal thresholds in the PRA Rulebook, supervisory statements and statements of policy be uprated automatically in line with UK nominal GDP. The paper is a consultation with a draft rule instrument and a draft statement of policy, and it closes on 7 February 2027. The PRA's stated purpose is to prevent “prudential drag”, the unintended tightening that occurs when a threshold set in money terms is left unchanged while prices and the economy grow.
The mechanics are uniform: the base year is 2026, with no backdating for thresholds set earlier; thresholds taking effect in 2027 or 2028, including those in the Basel 3.1 and Small Domestic Deposit Taker instruments, take their effective-date values as base amounts. The first update would take effect on 1 July 2031, reflecting nominal GDP growth over 2027 to 2029, with further updates every five years, each communicated by 31 December of the preceding year to give a six-month implementation window, and the formula would never reduce a threshold if nominal GDP fell. Of the 128 thresholds, 52 govern reporting and 31 set the perimeter of a regime or definition; the largest is the £320bn total assets threshold for detailed capital reporting and the smallest £7,500 for credit union lending to an individual, and fewer than 10% operate in the opposite direction, so that indexation would raise a requirement. The FPC's O-SII buffer thresholds and the £75bn retail deposits threshold for the leverage ratio are excluded.
For readers outside the banking sector, the relevant part is the discussion paper in section 4 on thresholds that operate across the PRA and FCA frameworks: the remuneration proportionality thresholds, the whistleblowing scope thresholds and the SMCR size thresholds for dual-regulated firms. The PRA does not propose to index these and instead asks what would follow if the two regulators adopted different metrics, base years or timetables, noting that the FCA raised its Enhanced-firm thresholds in 2026 in line with inflation while the dual-regulated thresholds were unchanged, and that groups containing both solo-regulated and dual-regulated entities could find similar firms treated differently; responses on that section will be shared with the FCA unless a respondent objects.
I think it likely that the FCA will be asked the same question about its own fixed thresholds once the PRA framework is settled, since the argument from prudential drag applies with equal force to the £5bn TCFD threshold in ESG 1A.1.2R and the £1.2bn assets under management condition for SNI status in MIFIDPRU 1.2.1R, and the PRA's paper shows that a single metric, base year and cycle can be applied across a rulebook without reopening each policy. Until the FCA says otherwise, a firm near any of its thresholds should assume that the figure will not move.
PRA and FCA remove the firm-level 15% cap on high loan to income mortgage lending from 28 October
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Banking
On 14 October 2026, the PRA and the FCA published PS19/26 (FCA PS26/20), High loan to income lending, with a new supervisory statement, SS2/26, and replacement FCA general guidance, FG26/11. The policy is final: the amendment to the Housing Part of the PRA Rulebook and both statements commence on 28 October 2026, when the interim modification by consent and individual guidance that lenders have used since July 2025 fall away automatically. It implements the FPC's July 2025 recommendation that the regulators allow individual lenders to exceed 15% of new mortgages at loan to income multiples of 4.5 or more, provided the aggregate flow remains consistent with the 15% limit.
With the firm-level cap removed, a lender above the de minimis threshold, set at less than £150m or fewer than 300 regulated mortgage contracts in each of two consecutive four-quarter periods, may set its own high LTI appetite, must notify its regulator before changing strategy to exceed 15%, and must monitor both its own flow and the aggregate figure that the PRA will publish each quarter. If the regulators judge the aggregate inconsistent with the FPC's limit, they will announce a fractional reduction that each lender above 15% applies to its excess in each successive quarter until its flow returns to 15% or the expectation is withdrawn.
One point changed between CP6/26 of April 2026 and the final policy: most of the 15 respondents objected that a lender cannot manage its high LTI share within a single calendar quarter, because completions lag approvals and vary with the season, and the regulators have therefore adopted a rolling four-quarter measure for each firm's flow and for the adjustment expectations, while keeping a single-quarter measure to monitor the aggregate and to trigger an adjustment. They declined to vary the adjustment by lender size or risk profile, considering that the de minimis exemption already protects the smallest lenders. The FCA's guidance records that it may use its powers under section 55L of FSMA to require a firm that does not act on its expectations to cease high LTI lending.
Bank of England consults on letting CCPs accept uncollateralised letters of credit from non-financial clients, with a 5% limit per issuing bank
LOW RISK · Sectors: Wholesale Markets, Banking
On 15 October 2026, the Bank of England published a consultation paper proposing to amend the Collateral Part of its draft UK CCP Rulebook so that central counterparties may accept uncollateralised letters of credit (LOCs) as initial margin collateral. The proposals amend the draft rulebook on which the Bank consulted in June 2025 and on which it expects to publish final rules in the fourth quarter of 2026; they would take effect no earlier than that rulebook and without an implementation period, since a CCP that chose to accept LOCs would need the Bank's permission under the existing process for new collateral types. Responses are due by 15 January 2027, with final rules planned for the first half of 2027.
The present rules, carried over from UK EMIR, allow commercial bank guarantees only from non-financial clearing members and only if fully collateralised, and the Bank notes that no UK CCP accepts them. The proposals would rename the instrument, extend eligibility to non-financial clients clearing through a member, remove the collateralisation requirement, confine issuers to authorised UK or overseas credit institutions, require CCPs to monitor issuer creditworthiness, and tighten the concentration limit from 10% to 5% of a CCP's total collateral per issuing bank, with the option to raise the limit to 25% removed. CCPs would have to validate each LOC with the issuer before accepting it, and a clearing member named as joint beneficiary could draw only with the CCP's consent; the PRA considers that such LOCs are credit substitutes attracting a 100% credit conversion factor under Basel 3.1. The Bank's case rests on the 2022 energy crisis, when ICE Clear Europe's initial margin requirements rose by £30bn between February and April and some non-financial firms reduced their hedging to avoid meeting margin calls in cash; it states that liquidity planning remains the clearing participant's responsibility.
Fund Launches & Capital Raises
Octopus Apollo VCT opens a £50m offer with a further £25m, paying its manager 3% plus up to 2.5% and 0.5% a year on direct applications
INFO · Sectors: Private Equity, Retail Distribution
On 15 October 2026, Octopus Apollo VCT plc announced an FCA-approved prospectus for an offer for subscription of up to £50m, with an over-allotment facility of a further £25m, open until 5 April 2027 for the 2026/27 tax year and 14 October 2027 for 2027/28 unless closed earlier.
The manager's charges are in three parts. Under an agreement dated 15 October 2026, Octopus Investments Limited, the portfolio manager, receives an initial charge of 3% of gross funds raised; a further charge of up to 2.5% of funds raised from investors who apply without a financial intermediary; and an additional 0.5% a year of the net asset value attributable to those direct investors' shares for up to nine years while they hold them. The company treats the agreement as a related party transaction within UKLR 8.2.1R and states that its sponsor, Howard Kennedy Corporate Services LLP, has advised that the terms are fair and reasonable. The effect is that shares bought direct carry an ongoing charge for up to nine years that shares bought through an intermediary do not.
PXN Growth VCT and the two Baronsmead VCTs open offers of up to £55m, with manager fees of up to 5% and 4.5% treated as related party transactions
INFO · Sectors: Private Equity, Retail Distribution
On 12 October 2026, PXN Growth VCT plc, formerly Praetura Growth VCT, published a prospectus for an offer of up to £10m of ordinary shares with a £10m over-allotment facility, open from that day until 1 April 2027 for the 2026/27 tax year and 24 September 2027 for 2027/28. Its investment manager, PXN Asset Management Limited, will charge up to 5% of accepted applications for promoting the offer, less early-bird and existing-shareholder discounts. Because the manager is a related party, the company treats the fee as a relevant related party transaction under UKLR 11.5.5R and has made the offer conditional on shareholders approving the payment at a general meeting at 10am on 11 November 2026, the procedure we described for Albion's offers in Issue 27.
On 14 October 2026, Baronsmead Venture Trust plc and Baronsmead Second Venture Trust plc published a joint prospectus for offers of up to £20m in aggregate, with over-allotment facilities of a further £15m, opening at 9am on 15 October and closing for the 2026/27 tax year at 9am on 29 March 2027 on a first-come, first-served basis. Gresham House Asset Management Limited is paid 4.5% of accepted applications for administering each offer, reduced by 1.5% for advised applications through intermediaries, for direct applications and where intermediaries waive initial commission, and it funds a discount to offer costs of 0.75% for existing shareholders and 0.5% for new investors on the first £7.5m per company; the announcement likewise describes the offer agreement as a relevant related party transaction. Taken with Octopus Apollo and Molten Ventures, the fortnight's VCT offers seek up to £160m including over-allotment facilities.
Molten Ventures VCT opens a £10m offer, with up to £20m more, under an offer document approved as a financial promotion
INFO · Sectors: Private Equity, Retail Distribution
On 7 October 2026, Molten Ventures VCT plc published an offer document for an offer for subscription seeking £10m, with an over-allotment facility of up to a further £20m and a ceiling of 80 million new ordinary shares, open from noon that day until 5pm on 30 June 2027 unless closed earlier. We noted the intended offer of up to £30m in Issue 28.
The document is not a prospectus: the company relies on the exemption for a closed-ended investment fund that issues, over twelve months, fewer shares than the number already in issue, so no prospectus has been approved by the FCA and the protections that attach to one, including section 90 of FSMA, are not available; the document is instead a financial promotion approved under section 21 of FSMA by Paxiot Limited, an FCA-authorised firm. The same route was used by Foresight Technology VCT and the Northern VCTs in September, as we described in Issue 29. An investor comparing the four offers opened this fortnight is therefore comparing three FCA-approved prospectuses, one of which carries a shareholder vote on the manager's fee, with one document whose accuracy is the responsibility of its approver under the financial promotion rules.
Enforcement Watch
FCA gives effect to the Odey judgment with a Final Notice imposing the Tribunal's penalty of £1,529,374 and a prohibition
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Asset Management, Hedge Funds
On 1 October 2026, the FCA published a Final Notice, dated 30 September 2026, to Robin Crispin William Odey, imposing a financial penalty of £1,529,374 under section 66 of FSMA for breach of Individual Conduct Rule 1 and a prohibition order under section 56 taking effect from the date of the notice. The notice gives effect to the Upper Tribunal's decision of 14 September 2026 in [2026] UKUT 00351 (TCC), which found each of the FCA's five allegations established, directed the penalty and dismissed the reference against the prohibition; we analysed the judgment, including the holding that powers used as controller to remove the firm's governing body fell within COCON, in Issue 28.
The notice adds little to the judgment and is not intended to: it records the Decision Notice of 3 March 2025, with its penalty of £1,835,200, the reference of 5 March 2025, the five findings in outline and the Tribunal's direction, and it states that the judgment “should therefore be read in full”. For firms, the notice shows the effect of a reference: a Decision Notice referred to the Tribunal does not take effect, so the prohibition against Mr Odey dates from 30 September 2026, almost nineteen months after the FCA first decided to impose it, and the Tribunal's reduction of the penalty by £305,826 followed from its own assessment under section 133(5) of FSMA and not from any finding against the FCA's case.
FCA prohibits a certified person convicted of rail fare fraud and an unauthorised adviser whose investors recovered 99% through confiscation
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: All Regulated Firms, Wealth Management
On 1 and 9 October 2026, the FCA published Final Notices, dated 1 and 8 October, to Joseph Molloy and John Charles Burford, making a prohibition order under section 56 of FSMA against each. Neither referred his Decision Notice, given on 3 August and 7 September 2026 respectively, to the Upper Tribunal, so the findings are the FCA's own and the orders took effect on the dates of the notices. No penalty was imposed in either case; both notices rest on criminal convictions.
Mr Molloy held controlled functions at various firms between 2001 and 2019 and was a certified person at an authorised firm from 19 June 2020 to 18 June 2025, certified to manage other certification employees and to deal with clients. Between October 2023 and September 2024, while so certified, he used two Southeastern accounts opened in false names to evade the fare on the middle section of at least 740 journeys, a total of £5,911. He pleaded guilty on 21 January 2026 to fraud by false representation under section 2 of the Fraud Act 2006 and was sentenced on 17 February 2026 to ten months' imprisonment suspended for eighteen months; the judge described “a sophisticated and determined fraud”. The FCA found, applying FIT 1.3.1BG and the conviction limb of FIT 2.1.3G, that the offence showed a lack of honesty and integrity, and it records that Mr Molloy accepted that he fell below the standards expected.
Mr Burford was never authorised: between January 2020 and December 2023 he sold trading alerts by subscription, receiving about £450,000, and then took £936,559 from 101 investors for three “Tramline” funds, a substantial part of which paid for his home and living costs. He pleaded guilty on 27 June 2025 to fraud, to two counts of carrying on regulated activity without authorisation contrary to sections 23 and 400 of FSMA and to one count of unlawful financial promotion under section 25, and was sentenced to two years' imprisonment. A confiscation order of £655,951.40 made at Southwark Crown Court on 27 July 2026 will, with earlier payments, return 99% of the money invested. The prohibition serves the purpose described in ENFG 5.4.1G of keeping an unapproved individual out of regulated business; the recovery for investors came through the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and not through the regulatory process.
I read the Molloy notice as the one with a lesson for employers, because the conduct had nothing to do with his work and the firm's annual fitness assessment under the certification regime depended on his disclosing it. The offending ran for almost a year within a five-year certification, so at least one annual assessment is likely to have been made while it was continuing, on a declaration that did not mention it; a firm cannot test for undisclosed offending, and its certification decision is only as good as the declaration, the regulatory reference and the public-record check it rests on.
Former Nexus director and operations manager plead guilty to defrauding four clients of £2m, with sentencing on 10 December
MEDIUM RISK · Sectors: Wealth Management, Financial Crime
On 13 October 2026, the FCA announced that Kerry Nelson, the director of Nexus Independent Financial Advisers Limited and Nexus Investment Managers Limited, and Jacqueline Stephens, the firms' business operations manager, had pleaded guilty at Portsmouth Crown Court on 12 October to all the charges the FCA brought against them. The pleas are admissions of criminal offences and not regulatory findings: fraud by abuse of position under sections 1 and 4 of the Fraud Act 2006 and using false instruments under section 3 of the Forgery and Counterfeiting Act 1981, committed between January 2019 and January 2023, with Ms Nelson also admitting converting criminal property under section 327(1) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002, and four clients lost £2m. Sentencing is listed for 10 December 2026, and the FCA will pursue confiscation against Ms Nelson.
Nexus IFA was permitted to advise on investments, mortgages and pensions and Nexus IM to provide discretionary management, and neither was permitted to hold or control client money; on 25 January 2023, the FCA imposed requirements preventing both firms from carrying on regulated activity and from reducing the value of their assets, and on 26 January 2023 the High Court placed both into administration. The release states that Ms Nelson withdrew money from the firms to fund “her extravagant lifestyle”, which is the FCA's characterisation; it does not explain how client funds were extracted from firms without client money permissions.
Separately, on 13 October 2026 the FCA and the National Crime Agency arrested three individuals in London and Manchester in an operation against a suspected organised insider dealing and money laundering group, searching five premises and seizing more than 30 devices. No charges have been announced and the FCA has said it cannot comment further.
Market Developments
Jon Relleen says a joint FCA and Bank of England roadmap for tokenised wholesale markets will be published within weeks
INFO · Sectors: Wholesale Markets, Asset Management
On 5 October 2026, Jon Relleen, the FCA's director of infrastructure and exchanges, gave a speech at the Reform of the UK Public and Private Capital Markets Summit. A speech is not policy, and the FCA's page notes that the drafted text may differ from what was delivered; most of it restates completed reforms, and two forward statements are new. The FCA and the Bank of England will publish “in coming weeks” a joint roadmap setting out how UK wholesale markets will adapt to tokenisation, following the joint vision published in May 2026 and the feedback statement FS26/1 that we covered in Issue 28, and the FCA will appoint an equity consolidated tape provider next year.
He cited figures for the programme to date: about 25 companies have joined the Main Market since the 2024 listing reforms, including seven IPOs in the first half of 2026; the bond consolidated tape launched in June 2026 has 1.6 million licences and has increased the share of corporate bond trades observed in real time by 70% and of government bond trades by 30%; four PISCES operators have been authorised and seven transactions have taken place; and the transaction reporting proposals in PS26/15 were estimated to save £100m a year. The speech gives no indication of a change in supervisory approach for asset managers; its relevance to them is the timetable, since the roadmap will frame the FCA's later work on tokenised funds and on the custody and prudential questions it has said it will address.
Nathanaël Benjamin says hedge funds are now net borrowers in repo and that the Bank will publish gilt repo policy proposals in early 2027
INFO · Sectors: Hedge Funds, Wholesale Markets
On 1 October 2026, Nathanaël Benjamin, the Bank of England's Executive Director for Financial Stability Strategy and Risk, gave a speech at the ISDA Derivatives Trading and Treasury Forum. It is a speech and announces no policy, but it states that the Bank intends to publish “a comprehensive update on this, including potential policy proposals, in early 2027” on the resilience of the gilt repo market, following its 2025 discussion paper, and that “doing nothing is not an option”. Andrew Bailey's speech in Istanbul on 8 October named the same candidates, central clearing, minimum haircuts and risk management, as measures that “merit consideration”.
The evidence Mr Benjamin set out comes from the Bank's combined use of transaction reporting, fund reporting and supervisory data. Over the past four years, hedge funds have moved from net lenders to net borrowers of cash in repo across several currencies, with banks the main providers of leverage, and growth in their gilt repo borrowing has coincided with rising futures open interest, consistent with an expansion of the cash-futures basis trade that the Bank has tracked over the last 18 months. In the first system-wide exploratory scenario, hedge funds assumed that additional repo financing would be available while dealer banks indicated that it would not, and many funds said they would unwind repo-financed positions in response. Bank research estimates that broader central clearing could have reduced dealer gilt repo exposures by 40% to 60% during the 2020 “dash for cash”, and the Bank found that competition for clients, as well as netting and portfolio margining, explains the prevalence of near-zero haircuts, which it considers can allow leverage to build at little cost.
Mr Benjamin also drew attention to the aggregate repo data the Bank now publishes in the Financial Stability Report. For a UK AIFM running leveraged gilt strategies, the 2027 proposals are likely to address the three areas he named, and the Bank's data already identify where the leverage sits.
Sasha Mills says the Bank will deliver a live synchronisation service in 2028 and review the CSD definition and settlement finality; HM Treasury appoints six lead managers for the digital gilt
INFO · Sectors: Wholesale Markets, Digital Assets
On 1 October 2026, Sasha Mills, the Bank's Executive Director for Financial Market Infrastructure, gave a speech at the Hogan Lovells and Global Digital Finance Digital Assets Summit. It is a speech and not policy, and much of it restates the “same risk, same regulatory outcome” principle, but it fixes three points of timetable and scope. The Bank intends to deliver a live synchronisation capability in 2028, allowing platforms to settle in central bank money, and is testing it through its Synchronisation Lab; it will publish, with the FCA, a full tokenisation roadmap later this year; and it places the future of CSD regulation and settlement finality “firmly in the innovation agenda”, meaning whether the definition of a CSD fits new business models, whether the scope of securities required to settle on a CSD is set appropriately, and how finality and financial collateral arrangements should apply to new asset types.
On the Digital Securities Sandbox, Ms Mills gave the activity limits as £8bn to £13.1bn for gilts and £17bn to £28bn for sterling corporate bonds. The Economic Secretary to the Treasury's speech of 6 October added that HSBC and ClearToken have been approved to operate live digital securities depositories in the sandbox and that the pilot issue of the digital gilt, DIGIT, is expected by the first quarter of 2027; HM Treasury the same day appointed Barclays, HSBC, Lloyds, Morgan Stanley, NatWest and RBC Capital Markets as joint lead managers.
Ms Mills said that the Bank will not pick technologies or business models and asked firms to bring real users and transactions into testing. For fund managers, the legal questions she listed, namely who owns the asset, which record is authoritative, when settlement is final and what happens on insolvency, are the questions that chapter 9 of CP26/35 leaves open for tokenised units in illiquid funds.
Regulatory Calendar
October 2026
- 16 Oct FCA CP26/30 on equity market transparency and market structure closes.
- 22 Oct FCA CP26/26 (FRAME fund reporting) and CP26/28 (UK AIFM regime and liquidity rules for unauthorised AIFs) close; FCA Board meeting, one of three remaining in 2026 at which Handbook instruments may be made.
- 28 Oct PRA Housing Part amendment, SS2/26 and FCA FG26/11 on high loan to income lending commence; interim modifications by consent and individual guidance fall away (PS19/26).
- Q4 2026 PRA publishes the aggregate high LTI flow for 2026 Q3; Bank of England policy response and final UK CCP Rulebook expected; FCA consultation on PERG 18 changes for the amended cryptoasset statutory instrument (PS26/18).
- Late 2026 Joint FCA and Bank of England roadmap for tokenisation in wholesale markets (Relleen, Mills speeches); FCA policy statement on the remaining CP26/19 DEPP proposals (Handbook Notice 144).
November 2026
- 2 Nov Fund authorisation applications and notifications on Forms 12, 242, 261C, 21, 251, 261Q, 283A, 9, the UCITS feeder form and Form FN must be submitted through Connect; email submissions no longer accepted.
- 5 Nov MPC Bank Rate decision.
- 6 Nov FCA CP26/34 on transaction reporting guidance and transitional provisions closes.
- 11 Nov PXN Growth VCT general meeting on the manager's offer fee, on which the offer is conditional.
- 19 Nov FCA Board meeting.
- 26 Nov Bank of England Financial Stability Report and FPC Record.
December 2026
- 10 Dec FCA Board meeting; sentencing of Kerry Nelson and Jacqueline Stephens at Portsmouth Crown Court.
- 11 Dec FCA CP26/35 on redemption terms for NURS investing in inherently illiquid assets closes.
- Dec FCA plans to move scheme document filings for authorised and recognised funds to Connect.
Key dates later in 2027 and beyond
- 15 Jan 2027 Bank of England consultation on CCP acceptance of letters of credit closes.
- Early 2027 Bank of England update on gilt repo market resilience, including potential policy proposals (Benjamin speech); FCA to publish lessons from Lea Paterson's review of its handling of a whistleblower.
- Q1 2027 FCA consultation on the full Transaction Reporting User Pack; DIGIT pilot issuance in the Digital Securities Sandbox; PRA policy statement on the liquidity framework (CP5/26), moved from Q4 2026; FCA to move certain AIFMD applications and notifications to Connect.
- 1 Feb 2027 COLL liquidity management rules (FCA 2026/54, PS26/17) in force.
- 7 Feb 2027 PRA CP13/26 on automatic indexation of thresholds, and its discussion paper section, close.
- 16 to 26 Feb 2027 Upper Tribunal hearing of the challenges to the FCA's motor finance compensation scheme.
- 28 Feb 2027 Cryptoasset application window closes; later applicants not authorised by 25 October 2027 fall into the transitional provision.
- 3 Apr 2027 FCA to publish the final Transaction Reporting User Pack.
- 2027 H1 Bank of England final rules on letters of credit as CCP collateral.
- 30 Jun 2027 Earliest date for institutional climate data requests under ESG 2.3.5AR (ESG TP 1.11); TCFD entity reports due.
- 25 Oct 2027 UK cryptoasset regime commences.
- 2028 Bank of England live synchronisation capability for settlement in central bank money (Mills speech).
- 3 Apr 2028 MAR 13, 14 and 15 transaction reporting rules (FCA 2026/52) in force; MAR TP 5 transitional provisions apply to the switch-over.
- 1 Jul 2031 First automatic update of PRA thresholds under the proposed indexation framework, with further updates every five years.
Your firm manages a non-UCITS retail scheme with material exposure to property, infrastructure or units in other funds. Under the definition proposed in CP26/35, which counts units in a second scheme by reference to its portfolio and not its dealing terms, what proportion of scheme property was in inherently illiquid assets at the last valuation point, who calculated it, and on what date did the fund last come within three months of the 50% threshold?
We’d welcome your perspective. The best responses may feature in a future edition.
Insight
Four of the fortnight's documents correct a number that had stopped measuring what it was set to measure. CP26/35 would tie the redemption terms of an illiquid NURS to the time its assets take to sell, after six years in which daily dealing continued on cash buffers that the FCA puts at more than twice the level seen in 90-day funds. CP13/26 would index 128 PRA thresholds because a sum fixed in money terms stops marking the firm size it was set for as the economy grows. PS19/26 replaces a firm-level 15% cap with an aggregate test because only the total was ever the FPC's concern, and Market Watch 86 found alert thresholds set without regard to the volatility of the stocks they monitored.
In each case the correction moves work from the regulator to the firm. Whether a fund is a FIIA would turn on a portfolio calculation at every valuation point and not on the dealing terms written into its prospectus; a lender that chooses to exceed 15% must be able to reduce its flow on a fractional schedule announced alongside the aggregate figure; and a broker must show, by testing above and below the line, that its alerts would have fired. In each case the regulator sets the test and the firm must supply the evidence that the number it chose meets it.
I would expect the FCA to make the CP26/35 rules in 2027 in substantially the form consulted on, since it has already rejected, with reasons, every alternative that respondents offered in 2020, and the ISA question is the only one that could delay them. The variable the FCA does not control is distribution: its central case assumes that some platforms, advisers and model portfolio providers will accommodate notice periods, and retail holdings in the six retail-marketed FIIAs stand at £3.07bn. The policy will succeed or fail on whether the platforms through which that money is held build for notice periods within the two-year implementation period, which the FCA can encourage but cannot require. Responses are due by 11 December 2026.